2019 TEST PAPER

1. b

2. b

3. b

4. b

5. a

6. d

7. b

8. c

9. c

10. a

11. a

12. d

13. a

14. a

15. b

Appendix VIII Practice Questions on Indian Polity (General Studies—Prelims)‌

1. The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is invariably from the members of ruling party?

(a) Committee on Public Undertakings

(b) Public Accounts Committee

(c) Estimates Committee

(d) Committee on Delegated Legislation

2. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament?

(a) Question Hour

(b) Zero Hour

(c) Half-an-hour discussion

(d) Short duration discussion

3. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House:

(a) Committee on Assurances

(b) Committee on Delegated Legislation

(c) Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) Estimates Committee

4. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance?

(a) Half-an-hour discussion

(b) Calling attention notice

(c) Short duration discussion

(d) Adjournment motion

5. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:

(a) Administrative Reforms Commission of India

(b) Gorwala Report

(c) Kripalani Committee

(d) Santhanam Committee

6. The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:

(a) Orissa

b. Bihar

(c) Punjab

d. Maharashtra

7. The correct statements about zero hour includes:

1. It is the first hour of every sitting in both the houses of Parliament.

2. It is mentioned in the Rules of Business of the houses of Parliament.

3. During this time, matters are raised without any prior notice.

4. It is the time immediately following the Question Hour in both the houses of Parliament.

5. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure since 1964.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 5

(d) 2, 3 and 5

8. The correct statements about calling attention notice are:

1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.

2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.

3. It does not involve any censure against government.

4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.

5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion?

1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of the House.

2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.

3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.

4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for introduction.

5. It involves an element of censure against government.

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

10. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of Injunction.

3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.

4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 4 only

11. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support of:

(a) 80 Members

(b) 140 Members

(c) 160 Members

(d) 50 Members

12. Which of the following statements are incorrect about unstarred question?

1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.

2. Answer to such a question is given orally.

3. Answer to such a question is not followed by supplementary questions.

4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.

5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

13. Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same. Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.

14. Assertion: In democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to the people.

Reason: The democratic government is based on the principle of popular sovereignty.

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

15. List-I (Writs) List-II (Literal meanings)

A. Mandamus

B. Habeas Corpus

C. Quo warranto

D. Certiorari

Codes: A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 1 4 2 3

(d) 2 4 1 3

1. "By what warrant or authority’

2. "We command’

3. "To be certified’

4. "You may have the body” or "To have the body of’

16. List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)

A. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

B. Suits against government

C. Writ jurisdiction of the High Court

D. Source of the power of judicial review

1. Article 13

2. Article 226

3. Article 300

4. Article 32

5. Article 166

17. The final work of UPSC in recruitment process is:

(a) Selection

(b) Appointment

(c) Certification

(d) Placement

18. The conditions of service of members of All-India Services are determined by:

(a) President of India

(b) Constitution of India

(c) Parliament of India

(d) Union Public Service Commission

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the following codes.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion: India has imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of civil servants.

Reason: The civil servants in India enjoy the right to vote.

20. Assertion: A member of All-India Service can appeal against the order of a State Government to the President of India.

Reason: Article 311 of the Constitution says that a civil servant cannot be removed or dismissed by any authority which is subordinate to the authority by which he was appointed.

21. The Vote on Account is passed:

(a) After the voting of demands

(b) Before the general discussion

(c) After the general discussion

(d) Either after the voting of the demands or after the general discussion.

22. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of budget in proper order:

1. General discussion

2. Appropriation Bill

3. Finance Bill

4. Voting of the demands for grant

5. Presentation to legislature (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(b) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3

(c) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

(d) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

23. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget?

1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget

2. A summary of demands for grants

3. An Appropriation Bill

4. A Finance Bill

5. The economic survey

(a) 1, 3 and 5

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

24. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?

(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.

(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

(c) It should relate to more than one demand.

(d) It should not raise a question of privilege.

25. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C & AG vests with:

(a) President of India

(b) Supreme Court

(c) Parliament

(d) National Development Council

26. The word "Budget” is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

(a) Art. 266

(b) Art. 112

(c) Art. 265

(d) None

27. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.

2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.

3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.

4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.

5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 5

(c) 1 and 5

(d) only 1

28. Which of the following expenditures are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Allowances of the Chairman of Lok Sabha.

2. Expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt.

3. Pensions of the judges of High Courts.

4. Any sum required to satisfy the award of any arbitration tribunal.

5. Administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral

(a) 2 and 5

(b) 1, 2 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

29. The correct statements about Public Account of India are:

1. The public account is the fund to which all public moneys received by or on behalf of the government are credited.

2. No legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public Account of India.

3. Legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public Account of India.

4. All public moneys, other than those credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, which are received by or on behalf of the government are credited to the Public Account of India.

5. It is operated by executive action.

(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 4

30. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended.

2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be amended.

3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.

4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different procedures.

5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it.

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 5

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

A. Consolidated Fund of India

B. Money Bill

C. Annual Financial Statement

D. Contingency Fund of India

1. Article 110

2. Article 267

3. Article 266

4. Article 265

5. Article 112

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure "charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure "made”

from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: The expenditure "charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.

34. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the Parliament. Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is based on the concept of sovereignty of the parliament.

35. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters. Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.

36. Assertion: The expenditure "charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament. Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory payment.

37. The Finance Commission does not recommend on:

(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and the states.

(b) The principles to be followed by the centre while giving grants-in-aid to the states out of the consolidated Fund of India.

(c) The amount of money to be allocated to the states from Public Account of India.

(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by President in the interest of sound finance.

38. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making power is not correct?

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.

(b) Laid down in Article 123.

(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament.

(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.

39. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:

1. All India Federation

2. Provincial Autonomy

3. Dyarchy at the Centre

4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as prescribed by:

(a) Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India.

(b) CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission.

(c) CAG of India with the approval of the President.

(d) President of India in consultation with CAG of India

41. Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India?

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

(d) Indian Councils Act of 1919

42. The features of Indian federal system are:

1. Division of powers

2. Separation of powers

3. Independent judiciary

4. Leadership of the Prime Minister

5. A written Constitution

(a) 2, 3 and 5

(b) 1, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 5

43. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

(a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.

(b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre and states.

(c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.

(d) Its advice is binding on the Government.

44. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1909 Act - Principle of election

(b) 1919 Act - Provincial autonomy

(c) 1935 Act - Dyarchy in states

(d) 1947 Act - Responsible government

45. The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and on like grounds as:

(a) Chairman of the UPSC

(b) Supreme Court Judge

(c) Attorney General of India

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

46. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871

(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882

47. Dyarchy was introduced by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1909

(b) Government of India Act of 1919

(c) Government of India Act of 1935

(d) Independence Act of 1947

48. Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?

(a) Dyarchy at the Centre

(b) All-India Federation

(c) Provincial autonomy

(d) Dyarchy in the provinces

49. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council of ministers?

(a) 24th amendment

(b) 42nd amendment

(c) 44th amendment

(d) 54th amendment

50. The Indian federation is based on the pattern of:

(a) Switzerland

(b) USA

(c) Russia

(d) Canada

51. Who said the "Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?”

(a) Granville Austin

(b) Ivor Jennings

(c) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) K.C. Wheare

52. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.

3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.

4. He can be removed by the President on his own.

5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.

(a) 1, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

53. Which of the following are correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

1. He is appointed by the President.

2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.

3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.

4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special invitee.

5. He is the de facto executive head of the Aayog.

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

53. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.

3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.

4. The state must compulsorily implement them.

5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1 and 3

55. The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India by:

(a) Government of India Act of 1858

(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861

(c) Pitts India Act of 1784

(d) Charter Act of 1833

56. Which is incorrectly matched?

(a) Prohibition of Discrimination— Article 15

(b) Right to Association—Article 19.

(c) Right to Protection of Life—Article 20.

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies— Article 32.

57. Who characterises Indian Union as "a federation with a centralising tendency?”

(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) K.C. Wheare

(c) Ivor Jennings

(d) Granville Austin

58. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British Government?

(a) Charter Act of 1858

(b) Regulating Act of 1773

(c) Pitts India Act of 1784

(d) Charter Act of 1833

59. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:

1. They are enforceable in the court of law.

2. These rights are absolute.

3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.

4. They are available only to Indian citizens.

5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 5

60. The words 'socialist’ and 'secular’ were added to the Preamble by:

(a) 41st amendment

(b) 44th amendment

(c) 46th amendment

(d) 42nd amendment

61. No demand for a grant is to be made except on the recommendation of:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Finance Minister

(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General

62. The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:

1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.

2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.

3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.

4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General.

5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 5

63. Which of the following are not the federal features of Indian Constitution?

1. Supremacy of Constitution

2. All-India services

3. Single citizenship

4. Independent judiciary

5. Bicameral legislature

6. Integrated judiciary

(a) 1, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 5 and 6

(c) 2, 3 and 6

(d) 2, 3 and 4

64. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:

1. Independent judiciary.

2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

3. A written Constitution.

4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.

5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5

65. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures

(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures

(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies

(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies

66. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration?

(a) Charter Act of 1833

(b) Regulating Act of 1773

(c) Charter Act of 1853

(d) Pitts India Act of 1784

Matching Pattern

Match List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes given below the lists.

67. List-I List-II

A. Equality in Public employment

B. Minorities rights

C. Right to personal liberty

D. Right against exploitation

A. Withholding of assent

B. Overridden by an ordinary majority

C. Taking no action on the bill

D. Overriden by a higher majority

1. Article 29

2. Article 21

3. Article 23

4. Article 16

5. Article 25

List-II

1. Qualified veto

2. Pocket veto

3. Absolute veto

4. Suspensive veto

5. Majority veto

70. List-I List-II

A. Third Schedule

B. Ninth Schedule

C. Fourth Schedule

D. Tenth Schedule

Codes: A B C D (a) 5 2 3 1

1. Allocation of seats in Upper House

2. Disqualification on Grounds of defection

3. Validation of certain acts

4. Languages

5. Forms of affirmations

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

71. Assertion: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government. Reason: The President is the titular head of the state while the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.

72. Assertion: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall not be eligible for re-election to that office. Reason: No person shall be eligible for election as a President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the House of People.

73. Assertion: All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. Reason: Parliament may, by law, regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or a VicePresident.

75. The Central Administrative Tribunal deals with:

(a) Recruitment matters

(b) Promotion matters

(c) Disciplinary matters

(d) Recruitment and all service matters

76. Which of the following can provide for the appointment of a Joint Public Service Commission?

(a) President of India

(b) Parliament of India

(c) UPSC

(d) State Governors

77. The origins of UPSC can be traced to:

(a) 1909 Act

(b) 1919 Act

(c) 1930 Act

(d) 1947 Act

78. The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Ministry of Personnel

(d) Parliament

79. The personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by:

(a) President of India

(b) Central Ministry of Personnel

(c) Parliament

(d) Supreme Court

80. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:

(a) Three years

(b) Four years

(c) Five years

(d) Six years

81. Who is regarded as the "Father of All-India Services?”

(a) Lord Macaulay

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(c) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Sardar Patel

82. A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:

(a) An order of the President

(b) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha

(c) An act of Parliament

(d) A resolution of the concerned state legislatures

82. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.

2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state at least for five years.

3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 60 years.

4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament.

5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

(a) 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 4 and 5

84. Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?

1. It is a statutory body.

2. Its members are drawn from administrative background only.

3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil procedure.

4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services as well as Central Services and Central Government posts.

5. It was setup in 1985.

(a) 2, 3 and 5

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 3

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

85. Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration. Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India.

86. Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President. Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body.

87. Assertion: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their tenure. Reason: The independence of the Public Service Commission has to be maintained.

88. Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the UPSC.

Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.

89. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a state?

1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.

2. He must have attained 35 years of age.

3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.

(a) 1, 2, and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj are:

1. Creation of a two-tier system

2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs

3. Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj institutions

4. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs

5. If superceded, elections must be held within one year

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

91. District Judges are appointed by:

(a) The Chief Justice of High Court

(b) The State Public Service Commission

(c) The Chief Minister of state

(d) The Governor of state

92. Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the recommendation of:

(a) Speaker

(b) Finance Minister

(c) Chief Minister

(d) Governor

93. According to the Balwantray Mehta Committee, the District Collector should be:

(a) Kept out of the Zila Parishad

(b) A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad

(c) A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote

(d) The Chairman of the Zila Parishad

94. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on:

(a) Democratic-decentralisation

(b) Panchayati Raj institutions

(c) Administrative arrangements for rural development

(d) Community development programme

95. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first by (in the order):

(a) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal

(c) Rajashtan and Andhra Pradesh

(d) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

96. The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of:

(a) District Collector

(b) Governor of the state

(c) Law Minister of the state

(d) High Court of the state

97. Which of the following is a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions?

(a) Balwantray Mehta Committee

(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee

(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(d) Ashok Mehta Committee

98. "The state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats and endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This provision is mentioned in:

(a) Part I of the Constitution

(b) Part IV-A of the Constitution

(c) Part III of the Constitution

(d) Part IV of the Constitution

99. A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:

1. Article 356 2. Article 360

3. Article 352

4. Article 365

(a) only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

100. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment act provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states?

(a) 4th Amendment

(b) 7th Amendment

(c) 11th Amendment

(d) 24th Amendment

101. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly or through officers subordinate to him. The word subordinates includes:

(a) All the ministers and the Chief Minister

(b) All the ministers except the Chief Minister

(c) Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister

(d) Only the Cabinet Ministers

102. In the event of declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the President can:

1. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government including the High Court.

2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Governor.

3. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High Court.

4. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the parliament.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

103. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:

1. It is laid down in Article 213.

2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council of ministers.

3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.

4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.

5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 4 and 5

104. Panchayati Raj is a system of:

(a) Local government

(b) Local administration

(c) Local self-government

(d) Rural local self-government

105. Which of the following are the features of 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?

1. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion of their population (to the total population) in municipal Area.

2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years.

3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts and audit would be decided by the State Governor.

4. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller urban area.

5. One-third of the seats shall be reserved for women, excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and ST women.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 5

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1 and 2

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

106. Assertion: Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister holds office till the pleasure of the Governor.

Reason: The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

107. Assertion: Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the 'Magna Carta’ of local government.

Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the 'father of local self-government in India.’

108. Assertion: The 73rd amendment to the Constitution gives a constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.

Reason: The Balvantray Mehta Committee report made a formal mention of the Gram Sabha.

110. Assertion: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Reason: The Governor of a state shall be appointed by the President India.

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

111. List-I List-II

A. Deliberative organisation

B. Formal head

1. Commissioner

2. Standing Committee

112. List-I (States) List-II (Governor’s special responsibilities)

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Gujarat

C. Nagaland

D. Assam

1. Law and order

2. Administration of tribal areas

3. Development of backward areas

4. Minister for Tribal Welfare

5. Hill Areas Committee working

113.

Mehta Committee

C. L.M. Singhvi Committee

D. Ashok Mehta Committee Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 4 1 2

3. Existing administrative arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes.

4. Community Development Programme and National Extension Service.

5. Panchayati Raj elections

114. The Governor of a state:

1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the President.

2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.

3. Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public Service Commission.

4. Has the power to allocate business of the government among the various ministers.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

115. The Constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words "during the pleasure of the Governor” in reality means:

(a) Pleasure of the President

(b) Pleasure of the Prime Minister

(c) Pleasure of the Chief Minister

(d) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly

116. The term "Cabinet” is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution?

(a) Article 74

(b) Article 75

(c) Article 352

(d) Not mentioned in the Constitution

117. Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?

1. He is responsible only to the Parliament.

2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax.

3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.

4. He has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

118. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between a censure motion and a no-confidence motion?

1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption whereas a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.

2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers, whereas a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.

3. The Government must resign if a noconfidence motion is passed, whereas the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.

4. A censure motion can be moved in both, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

119. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in: (a) 1971

(b) 1967

(c) 1968

(d) 1972

120. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:

(a) Constitutional provision

(b) Act of the Parliament

(c) Resolution of the Santhanam Committee

(d) Executive resolution

121. The functions of Estimates Committee include:

1. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in administration.

2. To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.

3. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.

4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

122. The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta Committee includes:

1. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.

2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.

4. District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.

5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.

(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

123. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Adjournment means an interruption in normal business of the Assembly.

(b) Prorogation means the end of the Assembly.

(c) Dissolution means the end of the Assembly.

(d) Proroagation means end of a session of the Assembly.

124. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?

1. Indirect elections of the chairpersons of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

2. Fresh elections within six months in case of dissolution.

3. Provision for reservation of seats for backward classes.

4. Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in Panchayats.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2, 3 and 4

125. Consider the following statements about municipal corporations:

1. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures.

2. They are established in the union territories by an order of the Chief Administrator.

3. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.

4. Their deliberative functions are separated from the executive functions. Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

126. Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?

(a) It is created by an executive resolution.

(b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.

(c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.

(d) It is a statutory body.

127. Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a state?

1. When requested by the President

2. When requested by the Governor

3. With the approval of Parliament

4. With the approval of President

5. With the approval of the concerned sate legislature.

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 5

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 5

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

128. Assertion: A minister at the Central level can be dismissed by the Prime Minister.

Reason: A minister is appointed by President only on the advice of Prime Minister.

129. Assertion: The Finance Commission facilitates the maintenance of financial balance between the Union and the states in the Indian federal system. Reason: The Constitution of India has given more financial powers to the Union Government.

131. Assertion: The Governor is dejure head of state administration. Reason: The Chief Minister is de-facto head of state administration.

132. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands-for- grants.

Reason: A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below.

133. List-I (Meaning of writs) List-II (Name of writs)

A. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties.

B. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court when the latter exceeds its jurisdiction.

C. It is issued by the courts to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office.

D. It is issued by the court asking a person do a thing or refrain from doing a thing

1. Injunction

2. Mandamu s

3. Certiorari

4. Prohibitio n

Codes:

134. List-I (Committees) List-II (Function)

A. Public Accounts Committee

B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation

C. Committee on Public Undertakings

1. Examines whether the promises made by the ministers on the floor of the house have been fulfilled.

2. Examines the CAG’s report on the appropriation accounts and ascertains whether the funds voted by Parliament are spent within the scope of the demand.

3. Examines whether the powers to make rules and regulations delegated by the Parliament are properly exercised by the executive.

D. Committee on 4. Examines the reports and accounts of the

Government Assurances.

Codes: A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 1 4 3 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

public undertakings and finds out whether their affairs are being managed in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial practices.

135. List-I List-II

A. Token grant 1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected

demand whose details cannot be stated.

B. Exceptional grant 2. It is voted by the Lok Sabha before the end of the financial year.

C. Vote of credit 3. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the end of the financial year.

D. Excess grant 4. It forms no part of the current service of any

financial year.

5. It is granted when funds to meet proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation.

Codes: A B C D (a) 4 3 5 2

(b) 5 4 1 3

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 5 3 1 4

136. List-I (Schedules in the

Constitution)

List-II (Provisions)

A. Sixth Schedule 1. Administration and control of scheduled

areas and scheduled tribes.

B. Second Schedule 2. Administration of tribal areas in states of

Assam, Meghalya, Tripura and Mizoram.

C. Twelfth Schedule 3. Provisions as to the Speaker and Deputy

Speaker of state Legislative Assemblies.

D. Fifth Schedule 4. Powers, authority and responsibilities of

municipalities.

5. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.

Codes: A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 1 2 5 3

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 3 5 1

137. The most important Legislative power of the Governor is:

(a) Nominating members to the state legislature.

(b) Issuing ordinances

(c) Assenting bills passed by the state legislature

(d) Dissolving the state legislative Assembly

138. Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel of communication between the Governor and the council of ministers. Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

139. Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?

1. Making provision for reservation to the backward classes.

2. Authorising the Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.

3. Organisation of Gram Sabhas.

4. Conferring financial powers on Pan-chayats with regard to taxes, fees and so on.

5. Setting up of a State Election Commission to conduct elections to the Panchayats.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5

140. Assertion: The UPSC’s function is not to decide but to advise. Reason: UPSC is a constitutional body Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

141. Which of the following are true of the Central Administrative Tribunal?

1. It was established under the provisions of Article 312-A of the Constitution.

2. It was set up by an order of the President of India.

3. It was set up in 1985

4. It was set up by an Act of Parliament.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

142. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with:

(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

(b) The Governor of the concerned state

(c) The Attorney-General of India

(d) The Chief Justice of India

143. The need for a separate parliamentary committee on public undertakings was first visualised by:

(a) Ashok Mehta

(b) G.V. Mavalankar

(c) Lanka Sundaram

(d) Krishna Menon Committee

144. Assertion: Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished by the creation of the Contingency Fund of India. Reason: The Contingency Fund of India is operated by the President of India. Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

145. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Vote on account

2. Charged items

3. Vote of credit

4. Excess grant

(a) 1 and 3

— To allow enough time for legislative scrutiny and discussion of the budget.

— Not submitted to the Parliament.

— Blanck cheque given to the executive.

— Submitted directly to the Lok Sabha for its approval

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

146. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries of the Supreme Court judges

2. Pensions of the Chairman of UPSC

3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable

4. Emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

147. Which of the following are the functions of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?

1. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament.

2. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the statement of accounts of state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings.

3. To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semi- autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.

4. To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for that purpose.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

148. Assertion: The device of Adjournment Motion is not used by the Rajya Sabha. Reason: An Adjournment Motion does not result in removing the Government from office.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

149. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. It was set up in 1964.

2. It is a statutory body.

3. Its functions are advisory in the same sense as those of UPSC.

4. Its mode of receiving complaints is similar to that of the Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in UK.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

150. Which of the following statements related to UPSC are correct?

1. It derives its functions only from the Constitution.

2. It is not consulted on matters related to the reservation of posts for the BCs, SCs and STs.

3. The President can exclude posts, services and matters from the purview of consultation with UPSC.

4. The President can place the personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

151. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the:

(a) President of the board

(b) Defence Secretary

(c) Chief Secretary of the state

(d) President of India

152. The correct statements about municipalities include:

1. They are known by various other names in different states.

2. They are controlled by the state governments.

3. Vesting of the executive authority in the Chairman.

4. They are statutory bodies.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

153. Who/which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council.

(a) Parliament

(b) President

(c) Governor

(d) State Assembly

154. In which of the following recommendations, the Ashok Mehta Committee differed from Balwantray Mehta Committee?

1. Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.

2. Official participation of politicalparties at all levels of Panchayat elections.

3. Zila Parishad as the executive body.

4. Entrusting development functions to the Zila Parishad.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 3 and 4

155. Under which of the following circumstances, the Governor can reserve a state bill for the consideration of the President?

1. If it is ultra vires.

2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court.

4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

156. Which of the following expenditures are "charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of Council of States.

2. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor-General.

3. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any arbitral tribunal.

4. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker.

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

157. Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee before being submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting?

(a) Additional grant

(b) Exceptional grant

(c) Token grant

(d) Excess grant

158. Which of the following is not involved in the preparation of budget?

(a) Finance Ministry

(b) NITI Aayog

(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General

(d) Finance Commission

159. Which of the following categories of bills require prior consent of the President before their introduction?

1. Bills to reorganise states.

2. Bills affecting taxes in which the states are interested.

3. State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of trade.

4. Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3

160. The Inter-State Council consists of

1. Prime Minister

2. Chief Ministers of all states

3. Chief Ministers of union territories with legislatures

4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers

5. Administrators of union territories with legislatures (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

161. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime Minister?

(a) Political Affairs Committee

(b) Appointments Committee

(c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

(d) Economic Affairs Committee

162. On which of the following items, the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President?

1. The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.

2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the state.

4. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

163. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of:

(a) Shah Commission

(b) Administrative Reforms Commission

(c) Santhanam Committee

(d) Swaran Singh Committee

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true

164. Assertion: The President of India can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution.

Reason: The Constitution lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President.

165. Assertion: The 73rd Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.

Reason: The Act has brought the Pan-chayati Raj institutions under the purview of justiciable part of the the Constitution.

166. Consider the following statements about the Governor:

1. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the state.

2. He should have completed 35 years of age.

3. His emoluments, allowances and privileges are determined by the President.

4. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against him. Of the above, the incorrect statements are:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

167. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?

(a) One-third

(b) One-twelfth

(c) One-eighth

(d) One-sixth

168. Assertion: A minister at the state level continues in office till he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister.

Reason: The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion. Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

169. Which of the following are true of the recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj?

1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.

2. The state legislature to have a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of weaker sections.

3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.

4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) only 2

170. Which of the following are true of the provisions of the 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?

1. Wards Committees, for wards with population of two lakhs.

2. The state Governor may authorise them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes.

3. A Municipal council for smaller Urban area.

4. The Twelfth Schedule contains 20 functional items for the municipalities.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) 3 and 4

171. Assertion: The number of members of UPSC is determined by the President. Reason: The members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

172. Assertion: The members of All-India Services work in the Central Government, state governments and union territories.

Reason: They are selected and recruited on the basis of all-India competitive examinations conducted by the UPSC.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

173. Assertion: The principle of the rule of lapse leads to "rush of expenditure” towards the end of a financial year.

Reason: The unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the financial year.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

174. Match the following:

175. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. It was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee.

2. It does not exercise superintendence over the functioning of CBI.

3. It is set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India.

4. It consists of a chairman and three members.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

176. Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national emergency by the President?

1. The President can issue directives to the state executives.

2. The President can extend the normal tenure of the Lok Sabha.

3. The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights of citizens.

4. The President can modify the distribution pattern of financial resources between Centre and states.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

177. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) 1919 Act - Dyarchy at the Centre

(b) 1861 Act - Portfolio system

(c) 1935 Act - Bicameralism

(d) 1853 Act - Governor-General of India

178. Which of the following are true of the President’s ordinance making power?

1. It is laid down in Article 123.

2. Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative power of Parliament.

3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when the Lok Sabha is not in session.

4. It is a discretionary power of the President.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, and 3

179. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament?

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Judicial Review

3. Federalism

4. Written Constitution

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

180. Assertion: Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Residuary powers were vested in the Central Legislature. Reason: The Government of India Act of 1935 divided the subjects into three lists viz. the federal, provincial and concurrent. Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

181. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. Rigid Constitution

2. Bicameral legislature

3. Office of the CAG

4. Collective responsibility

5. Office of the Governor

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

182. Assertion: The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Finance Commisson. Reason: The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President of India.

Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

183. The correct statements about Finance Commission are:

1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism

2. It consists of a chairman and three other members.

3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the President.

4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article 280.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

184. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:

1. Pocket veto

2. Absolute veto

3. Suspensive veto

4. Qualified veto

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

185. The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers is governed by the provisions of:

(a) 42nd Amendment Act

(b) 48th Amendment Act

(c) 54th Amendment Act

(d) 44th Amendment Act

186. The Zonal Councils have been established by:

(a) Article 263 of the Constitution

(b) States reorganisation Act

(c) Zonal Councils Act

(d) An order of the President of India

187. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Parliament can increase a tax.

2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax.

3. Parliament can abolish a tax.

4. Parliament cannot increase a tax.

5. Parliament can reduce a tax.

(a) 1, 3 and 5

(b) 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

188. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. It is subject to the vote of Parliament.

2. It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.

3. It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.

4. It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

189. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are:

1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the President cannot.

2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.

3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.

4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

190. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of a Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President?

1. It is laid down in Article 200.

2. It is not a discretionary power of the Governor.

3. It is compulsory, if the bill endangers the position of High Court.

4. He can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

191. The incorrect statements about Central Vigilance Commission are:

1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms Commission.

2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister.

3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of the UPSC.

4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman.

5. It receives complaints directly from aggrieved persons.

(a) 1, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 3, 4 and 5

192. Which of the following civil services find mention in the Constitution?

1. Indian Administrative Service

2. Indian Forest Service

3. Indian Police Service

4. All-India Judicial Service

5. Indian Foreign Service

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 1, 3 and 4

193. In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?

1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.

2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.

3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.

4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the government of a state.

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

194. Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?

1. Classification of services

2. Promotion

3. Training

4. Disciplinary matters

5. Talent hunting

(a) 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Matching Pattern

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the respective lists.

195. List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)

A. Indian Councils Act of 1861.

1. Introduced Dyarchy

2. Placed Indian affairs under the direct control of the British Government.

B. Government of India Act of 1919

C. Indian Councils Act of 1892

D. Pitts India Act of 1784

3. Introduced representative institutions.

4. Introduced provincial autonomy.

5. Introduced the principle of election.

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

196. Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body. Reason: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet.

197. Assertion: The Constitution of India in quasi-federal.

Reason: It has given more powers to the Central Government than to the state governments.

198. Assertion: The Chief Minister can dismiss a minister of state government. Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.

199. Which of the following are correct with regard to the functions of the UPSC?

1. To conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.

2. To assist states, if requested, in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required.

3. To advise the Union and state governments on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.

4. To present, annually, to the President a report as to the work done by it.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

200. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?

(a) Prohibition

(b) Mandamus

(c) Quowarranto

(d) Injunction

Answers